by From Despair To Where? »
30 May 2026 00:00
30 May 2026 00:00
BRO_BOT wrote: ↑29 May 2026 23:23
From Despair To Where? wrote: ↑29 May 2026 18:44
Winston Biscuit wrote: ↑29 May 2026 14:47
This is only the 4th European Cup/Champions League final between clubs from 2 different capital cities, and its the first since 1971
Possibly a massive generalisation but could that be because Capital cities tend to be political and cultural centres rather than the industrial, working class heartlands that generally spawned the game?
In the last 30* years, the final has been dominated by England, Spain, and Germany. Italy and France have made a few finals. The team that shows up the most is Real Madrid, ten times. Madrid clubs represented twelve times, London clubs five, Paris three (including the upcoming one), and the Netherlands once
So out of 60 teams, a capital city has been represented 21 times
Manchester Utd/City has dominated England (21 of 34 prems), Real/Barcelona dominate Spain, Munich dominates Germany. Berlin is considered much more working-class than Munich.
* (just cause I can hold the numbers in my head),
Madrid have an advantage in Spain that was baked in by the political elites in the mid 20th century. Real won 2 titles before 1950. Spanish football was dominated by Barcelona, Valencia, Sevilla/Betis and Bilbao before that.
London's representation is dominated by Chelsea who were bankrolled by foreign money.
Berlin was an enclave behind the Iron curtain until 35 years ago, that will have a massive cultural impact on the national status of the clubs in the city. The traditional powerhouses in German football were in the industrialised North West. Bayern Munich weren't even entered in the Bundesliga when it was formed. Even in East Germany, Dynamo didn't dominate without political interference.
PSG was a club founded in the 70s by rich blokes because all the Parisian football teams were shit and they thought that being the capital, Paris warranted a decent football team.